Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 3 Veterinary Sciences

  Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 3 Veterinary Sciences

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201. Linkage between either dominant or recessive alleles is called

(a) Coupling linkage

(b) Repulsion linkage

(c) Complete linkage

(d) Incomplete linkage

202. The diploid chromosome number in chicken is

(a) 38

(b) 74

(c) 78

(d) 60

203. Wry neck is mostly seen in

a) Bovine

b) Caprine

c) Equine

d) Canine

204. Recommended fetotomy procedure in perosomus elumbis is

a) Amputation of fetal limbs

b) Bisection of pelvis

c) Transverse division of fetal trunk

d) Amputation of head and neck

205. Generally stallion attains the puberty at the age of

a) 4 to 7 months

b) 9 to 12 months

c) 12 to 24 months

d) 36 to 42 months

206. Sertoli cell tumor of the testes in dog secretes

a) Testosterone

b) Estrogen

c) Androgen

d) Prolactin

207. Dystrophia adiposogenitalis is observed in the

a) Dog

b) Stallion

c) Boar

d) Ram

208. Large number of primary sperm abnormalities are indicative of

a) Ectopic testes

b) Testicular degeneration

c) Testicular neoplasm

d) Testicular fibrosis

209. When arable farming is mixed with livestock raising it is known as

(A) Mixed farming

(B) Sole farming

(C) Co-operative farming

(D) Slate farming

210. Villagesurpanch is elected through

(A) Secret ballot paper

(B) Member

(C) Co-operative

(D) Nominated

211. AMUL system of milk marketing follows the principle of

(A) Co-operative

(B) Mutual work

(C) Subsidy purpose

(D) Service

212. GCMMF has made turnover of Rs.

(A) 5500 crore

(B) 6700 crore

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(C) 5000 crore

(D) 8000 crore

213. Who is the chairman of GCMMF?

(A) Amrita patel

(B) Vipul chaudhary

(C) Parthi Bhatol

(D) Dr. Kurian

214. Rural dairy extension programmed was the part and parcel of

(A) ICDP

(B) DPAP

(C) IRDP

(D) JRY

215. Electronic identity is made in animal by

a. Electron microscope

b. Computer

c. Radium number

d. Electronic chip

216.This measurement of body has close relation with body weight in animal

a. Body length

b. Paunch girth

c. Height at wither

d. Heart girth

217.Blanketing is the practice utilize for

a. Brighter look to body coat

b. To keep hide in good condition

c. Refard hair growth

d. All of above

218.Wedge shaped body denotes

a. Beef character

b. Draught character

c. Dairy character

d. None of above

219.Colostrum feeding in the calf should be done at

a. Within two hours after calving

b. Within three days of calving

c. Within twelve hours after calving

d. None of above

220.Age at first kidding in mehsani goat breed is

a. 18 to 24 months

b. 24 to 30 months

c. 12 to 18 months

d. 30 to 36 months

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221. Which state rank first in duck population

a. West Bangal

b. Assam

c. Orissa

d. Karala

222. Project Directorate on Poultry (PDP) is located at

a. Izzatnagar

b. Banglore

c. Hyderabad

d. Anand

223. Central Avian Research Institute (CARI) is located at

a. Izzatnagar

b. Banglore

c. Hyderabad

d. Anand

224. Normally which ovary & oviduct is functional in chicken

a. Right ovary and Right oviduct

b. Left ovary and Left oviduct

c. Right ovary and Left oviduct

d. Left ovary and right oviduct

225. Complete Parts of Oviduct in chronological order are

a. Infundibulum-Isthumus-Magnum-Uterus-Vagina

b. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterus-Vagina

c. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterus

d. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Vagina-Uterus

226. Fertilization is take place in which part of reproductive tract

a. Ovary

b. Isthumus

c. Infundibulum

d. Uterus

227. . Chloramphenicol residues and milk products causes in consumers…..

a) Arthritis

b) Aplastic anemia

c) Blindness

d) Anorexia

228. Well established protozoan disease transmitted through milk…..

a) Cysticercosis

b) Toxoplasmosis

c) Giardiasis

d) Salmonellosis

229. Insecticides of group that constitute the principal health hazard to consumers of milk and milk

products…..

a) Organic sulphates

b) Organic phosphates

c) Chlorinated hydrocarbons

d) Activated chlorinate

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230. The following acid producing bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid in milk…..

a) Streptococcus cremoris

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Bacillus cereus

d) Clostridium botulinm

231. The most common bacterium causing joint pain…..

a) Brucella

b) Shigella

c) Salmonella

d) Clostridia

232. Galacto toxins in milk are produced by…..

a) Streptococci spp.

b) Contact of milk with steel vessels

c) Contact of milk with copper vessel

d) Serratia spp.

233. . Praziquental and tartar emetic is drug of choice for :

(a) Schistosoma sp.

(b) Eurytrema sp.

(c) Notocotylus sp.

(d) All of the above

234. In schistosoma which of the following statement is true :

(a) Male is longer than female

(b) Female is longer than male

(c) Female & Male are of same size

(d) None of the above

235. Flame cell is excretory system of which of the following :

(a) Trematodes

(b) Cestodes

(c) Nematodes

(d) Acanthocephala

236. Normally eggs are operculated in which of the following :

(a) Round worm

(b) Trematode

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

237. Out of which of the following are unsegmented :

(a)Round worm

(b) Trematode

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

238. 'Gape worm' of poultry is :

(a) Ascaridia galli

(b) Heterakis gallinarum

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(c) Syngamus trachea

(d) Subulura brumpti

239. Poll evil in Horse is caused by-

(A) Clostridium tetani

(B) Actinomyces bovis

(C) Brucella abortus

(D) Both (B) and (C).

240. Nutritional roup in Poultry is caused due to deficiency of-

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin E

(D) Vitamin A.

241. Epithelial Pearls are seen in-

(A) Sebaceous cell Adenoma

(B) Squamous cell carcinoma

(C) Melanoma

(D) Venereal granuloma.

242. Blue Tongue in sheep is caused by-

(A) Herpes virus

(B) Birna virus

(C) Picorna virus

(D) Orbi virus.

243. Most common Serotype of FMD virus in India is-

(A) A

(B) C

(C) Asia-1

(D) O.

244. In which disease post mortem of carcass is prohibited?

(A) Haemorragic septicemia

(B) Rinder pest

(C) Anthrax

(D) Brucellosis.

245. The water used for moistening of POP cast should range between

a. 30-35 C̊

b.10-20 C̊

c. 20-25 C̊

d. 40-45 C

̊

246. The best procedure for complete diaphyseal fracture of tibia in bullock is

a. POP

b. Hanging pin cast

c. Walking cast

d. Thomas splint

247. If fracture is stabilized with rigid fixation the clinical union occur at

a. 15-20 days

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b.20-30 days

c.40-50 days

d.80-100 days

248. Typical radiographic sign of osteo-arthritis is

a. Increased joint space

b. Decreased joint space

c. Irregular joint space

d. Irregular joint space with new bony growth

249. The radiographic signs of non union is

a. Radiolucency between fragments

b. Increased radio density of either fragments

c. Placement of fragments side by side

d. Rounding of both fragments

250. The radiographic diagnosis of intestinal obstruction is done by using

a. Barium sulphate

b. Conray -420

c. Urographin

d. Ipamidol

251. . Holocrine secretion:

a. Occurs in sebaceous glands

b. Occurs in endocrine glands

c. Involves little or no loss of cytoplasm

d. All of the above

252. The site of production of cholecystokinin and secretin is the:

a. Stomach

b. Pancreas

c. Small Intestine

d. Large Intestine

253. Alkaline mucous glands are found in the submucosa of the:

a. Ileum

b. Jejunum

c. Duodenum

d. Cardiac region of the stomach

254. The gallbladder:

a. Produces bile

b. Is attached to the pancreas

c. Stores and concentrates bile

d. Produces cholecystokinin

255. Which of the following sphincters is under voluntary control?

a. Pyloric

b. Hepatopancreatic

c. Internal anal

d. External anal

256. At the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, the epithelial lining changes abruptly from

__________________ to _________________.

a. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous; simple columnar

b. Simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous

c. Nonkeratinized simple squamous; stratified columnar

d. Stratified columnar; nonkeratinized simple squamous

257. Which one of the following has maximum natriuretic effect?

a) Spironolactone

b) Frusemide

c) Mannitol

d) Acetazolamide

258. The following is not an indication of PGF2 alpha

a) Synchronization of oestrus

b) Cystic ovaries

c) Persistent corpus luteum

d) Induction of abortion

259. In which of the following animals emetics are not used?

a) Rats

b) Cattle

b) Horse

c) All of the above

260. Which of the following drugs produces only laxative effect even with increase in dose?

a) Magnesium sulphate

b) Anthraquinone

c) Castor oil

d) Liquid paraffin

261. One of the following is not a salt of bunamidine used against cestodial infestation in

animals.

a) Bunamidine P-toluene sulphonate

b) Bunamidine hydrochloride

c) Bunamide sodium

d) Bunamidine hydroxynaphthoate

262. Source of bacitracin is

a) Streptomycin rimosus

b) Bacillus subtilis

c) Streptomyces aureqfaciens

d) Bacillus polymyxa

263. The most effective chemical disinfectant to kill FMD virus is:

a. 2 % formalin

b. 70 % alcohol

c. 2 % Sodium hydroxide

d. 0.5 % phenol

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264. Hendra and Nipah viruses belong to the family:

a. Paramyxoviridae

b. Orthromyxoviridae

c. Picornaviridae

d. Parvoviridae

265. Clinical manifestation of canine parvovirus infection is/are:

a. Mycocarditis in pups

b. Haemorrhagic diarrhea

c. Leukopenia

d. All of above

266. Bluetongue virus has:

a. 20 serotypes

b. 24 serotypes

c. 7 serotypes

d. 9 serotypes

267. Find the wrong match:

a. Borrel bodies- Fowl pox

b. Guarneri bodies- small pox

c. Negribodies- Rabies

d. All are correct

268. Bovine diarrhea virus belongs to the family

a. Flaviviridae

b. Reoviridae

c.Togaviridae

d.Rhabdoviridae

269. Viral triad include

a. Rinder pest virus, Measles virus and Canine distemper virus

b. Rinder pest virus, Mumps virus, Measles virus

c. Measles, mumps and Rubella viruses

d. Rinder pest virus, Reo virus and Rhabdo virus

270. The concentration of single stranded RNA molecule which gives absorbance value

of 1.0 at 260 nm is:

a. 33 μg/ ml

b. 40 μg/ ml

c. 50 μg/ ml

d. Cannot be determined on the basis of absorbance value

271. The 260/280 nm ratio of pure DNA sample should be:

a. Less than 1.8

b. 1.8

c. More than 1.8

d. 3.0

272. The 260/280 nm ratio less than 1.8 for a DNA sample reflects:

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a. Protein contamination

b. RNA contamination

c. Both

d. None

273. Oligo dT attached to resin is used for the column based isolation of

a. Prokaryotic DNA

b. Eukaryotic DNA

c. Prokaryotic m-RNA

d. Eukaryotic m-RNA

274. The chemical that can be used for precipitation of DNA is:

a. Ethyl alcohol

b. Isoamyl alcohol

c. Phenol

d. None

275. The chemical method of DNA sequencing is:

a. Maxam Gilbert method

b. Sanger method

c. Both

d. None

276. Which of the following is a oval articular projection?

a. Condyle

b. Trochlea

c. Head

d. Facet

277. Which of the following is a ventricle of hind brain?

a. Third ventricle

b. Fourth ventricle

c. Lateral ventricle

d. None of above

278. Which of the following is a spherical shallow articular depression?

a. Glenoid cavity

b. Cotyloid cavity

c. Articular groove

d. Semilunar notch

279. The cell membranes is mainly composed of

a. a single layer of protein molecules

b. a protein bilayer

c. a phospholipids bilayer

d. a polysaccharide bilayer

280. Which organelles is the site for ATP production?

a. nucleoli

b. mitochondria

c. gogli complex

d. ribosomes

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281. During which stage mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle of cell

a. prophase

b. anaphase

c. metaphase

d. telophase

282. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

a. bone

b. cartilage

c. muscle

d. blood

283. The point of crossover is known as

(a) Tetrad

(b) Chiasma

(c) Synapsis

(d) Recombination

284. The The maximum probability of making Type-I error is known as

(a) Confidence interval

(b) Test of significance

(c) Level of significance

(d) Rejection region

285. Which of the following traits will show higher rate of genetic improvement under mass selection

programme

a) Service period in cattle

b) Body weight at 8 week in poultry

c) Litter size in pig

d) Twinning rate in goat

286. Diallele crossing is usually practiced in

(a) Cattle

(b) Sheep

(c) Race horse

(d) Poultry

287. Marker assisted selection is more effective for traits of

(a) High heritability

(b) Low heritability

(c) Medium heritability

(d) Both b) and c)

288 ‘Operation Flood’ scheme was operated by

(a) NDDB, Anand

(b) NDRI, Karnal

(c) IVRI, Izatnagar

(d) NDRI, Bangalore

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289. Inbreeding would more severely affect

(a) Pre weaning gain in sheep

(b) Litter size in pig

(c) Fat % in cow

(d) Mature body weight in doe

290. Smooth muscle around spermatic cord to help in thermoregulation of testes is

a) Tunica dartos

b) Cremester muscle

c) Pampiniform plexus

d) Gubernaculum

291. Mitochondria concentrates close to the axoneme and forms the

a) End piece of the tail

b) Neck of the sperm

c) Mid piece of the tail

d) Annulus

292. Unnatural tactile stimulation and ejaculation is known as

a) Onanism

b) Coolidge effect

c) Pederasty

d) Balling up

293. A complete series of cellular associations along a seminiferous tubule

a) Spermatogenic wave

b) Spermiostasis

c) Spermiogenesis

d) Cycle of seminiferous epithelium

294. Terminology used for the high per cent of abnormal sperms

a) Teratozoospermia

b) Aspermia

c) Asthenozoospermia

d) Necrozoospermia

295. Inability to withdraw the penis back in to the prepuce

a) Paraphimosis

b) Posthitis

c) Phimosis

d) Preputial prolapse

296. Effect of novelty of stimulus females reduces refractory period in males is known as

a) Balling up effect

b) Coolidge effect

c) Bruce effect

d) Pederasty

297. Sabarmati Ashram gosala founded in

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(A) 1815

(B) 1925

(C) 1915

(D) 1945

298. Central council of Gosamverdhan was started

(A) 1952

(B) 1955

(C) 1958

(D) 1960

299. State farming is managed by

(A) NGO

(B) Govt.

(C) People

(D) Middlemen

300. NDRI is located at

(A) Jaipur

(B) Kernel

(C) Jabalpur

(D) Cochin