Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 5 Veterinary Sciences

Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 5 Veterinary Sciences

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401. Toxic jaundis is also known as

(A).Post haepatic jaundis

(B).Haepatic jaundis

(C).Pre haepatjc jaundis

(D). Obstructive jaundis

402. Siderosis means

(A).Deposition of calcium in lung

(B). Deposition of iron in lung

(C). Deposition of silicon in lung

(D). Deposition of silver particle in lung

403. Van den Bergh test for obstructive jaundis

(A). Direct

(B).Indirect

(C).Biphasic

(D). Both (B) & (C)

404. In abscess which type of necrosis is seen?

(A). Coagulative necrosis

(B).Liquifective necrosis

(C).Caseative necrosis

(D).Fat necrosis

405..First change after death is

(A). Alger mortis

(B).Rigor mortis

(C).Formation of bloat

(D).Both (B) & (C)

406. Inflammation of crop

(A). Blephritis

(B).Ingluvitis

(C). Typhlitis

(D). Gonitis

407.Cart wheel appearance of nuclease found in

(A).Plasma cell

(B). Basophils

(C). Eosinophils

(D). Monocyte

408..Extreme elevation of leucocyte in peripheral blood is known as

(A).Shift to left

(B). Leukamoid reaction

(C). Right shift

(D). Both (A) & (C)

409.Blood in vomitus

(A). Haematamiasis

(B). Haemoptysis

(C).Epistaxis

(D).Melena

410. Bleeding from the oviduct is designated as:

a) Epitaxis

b) Hemosalpinx

c) Hematocele

d) Hematemasis

411. Condition which is hereditary and sex linked in which clotting is delayed:

a) Apoplexy

b) Hemophilia

c) Brown induration

d) Epistaxis

412. On the basis of rainfall, temperature, and soil the country can be divided into ---

Animal husbandry region

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

413. Small scale farming also known as

(A) Faimly farming

(B) Sole farming

(C) Individual farming

(D) Co-operative farming

414. Secretary of Panchayat samity

(A) DDO

(B) TDO

(C) Collector

(D) Mamlatdar

415. National Institute of Rural Development is located at

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Chennai

(C) Bangalore

(D) Jaipur

416. Specialized farm income from main enterprise is

(A) <50%

(B) >50%

(C) 50%

(D) 60%

417. The first Veterinary University was established in the year 1986 at

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Trichur

(C) Bangalore

(D) Chennai

418. Contribution of sight in learning is

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(A) 80%

(B) 87%

(C) 90%

(D) 95%

419. Two forms of social stratification

(A) Cast class

(B) Color race

(C) Custom value

(D) Norm belief

420. Tegur in Karnataka is the breeding farm for

a. Gir

b. Tharparkar

c. Khillar

d. None of these

421. Malas are the professional breeder for

a. Sahiwal

b. Red sindhi

c. Rathi

d. Ongole

422. This breed produce the “Primium market milk” due to yellow color of milk

a. Jersey

b. Brown swiss

c. Guernsey

d. Ayreshire

423. Ration calculation for individual animal does not require this thing

a. Weight of animal

b. Lactation yield

c. Pregnanacy

d. Parity of animal

424. Maize fodder (green) is comes under the grade in quality

a. Excellent

b. Good

c. Medium

d. Poor

425. This practice is not comes under milking method

a. Intermittent milking

b. Knuckling

c. Full hand

d. Stripping

426. This practice does not required for sexual stimulation in bull

a. False mount

b. Changing teaser

c. Changing semen collector

d. Restraining mount

427. The score points for cow graded “very good” are

a. 80 to 85

b. 85 to 90

c. 90 to 95

d. 70 to 80

428. The key village scheme was launched in India during the year

a. First five year plan

b. Second five year plan

c. Fifth five year plan

d. Sixth five year plan

429. Operation flood project received donation of butter oil and scheme milk from

a. European union

b. U. S. A.

c. European dairies

d. European economic community

430 In poultry true stomach is

a. Gizzard

b. Proventriculus

c. Crop

d. Abomasums

431 The end product of protein metabolism in poultry is mainly

a. Urea

b. Uric acid

c. Ammonia

d. Urates

432 Which type of egg producer molt late in the season and rapidly

a. Good egg producer

b. Poor egg producer

c. Average egg producer

d. None of above

433 Which type of egg producer molt early in the season and slowly

a. Good egg producer

b. Poor egg producer

c. Average egg producer

d. None of above

434 Forced molting is done by

a. Withdrawal of Feed and Water

b. Withdrawal of Light

c. Increase level of dietary Zinc

d. All of above

435 Cold room temperature for hatching egg storage is

a. 48-52 oF

b. 58-62 oF

c. 68-72 oF

d. 78-82 oF

436 Setter temperature for hatching egg is

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a. 92.5-93 oF

b. 99.5-100 oF

c. 102.5-103 oF

d. 97.5-98 oF

437 Hatcher temperature for hatching egg is

a. 94-95 oF

b. 99-100 oF

c. 98-99 oF

d. 96-97 oF

438 Physiological zero (0) temperature bellow which embryo growth is arrested in eggs

a. 75 oF

b. 65 oF

c. 85 oF

d. 95 oF

439 Position of hatching egg in setter is

a. Narrow end up

b. Broad end up

c. Horizontal

d. Vertical

440. Ematiation in meat is caused by…..

a) Inadequate intake of nutrients

b) Pathological conditions

c) Advanced age of animal

d) Over eating

441. Clostridium botulinum secretes toxin under…..

a) Aseptic condition

b) Aerobic condition

c) Anaerobic condition

d) Aerobic as well as anaerobic condition

442. In sheep the normal arterial blood pressure is…..

a) 100-110 mm of mercury

b) 120-145 mm of mercury

c) 146-165 mm of mercury

d) 166-175 mm of mercury

443. Unconventional meat…..

a) Beef

b) Mutton

c) Crocodile meat

444. Booling test on meat detect…..

a) PH

b) Colour

c) Odour

445. Electrical stunning is widely used in…..

a) Cattle and poultry

b) Pigs and poultry

c) Buffaloes and poultry

446. Study of organism in relation to their environment is Known as…

a)Ecology

b)Ecosystem

c)Epornitic

d)Oncology

447. Which disease is Ectoparasitic zoonosis

a) Scabies

b) Taeniasis

c) Both a) & b)

d) None of above

448. How to control reservoir of infection

a) Treatment

b) Health education

c) Both a) & b)

d) None of above

449. Rabies also knokwn as….

a)Lyssa

b)Rage

c)Tallwut

d)All of above

450. Spinose ear tick mainly pathogenic in which of the following stage :

(a) Larval stage

(b) Nymphal stage

(c) Adult stage

(d) All of the above

451. The chief cause of 'strike in the sheep' is which of the following :

(a) Larvae of Musca sp.

(b) Larvae of Sarcopaga sp.

(c) Larvae of Lucilia sp.

(d) All the above

452. Second intermediate host of oviduct fluke are :

(a) Dragon flies

(b) Water snail

(c) Grasshopper

(d) None

453. Insects which possess sponging mouth parts and do not bite are :

(a) Fleas

(b) House flies

(c) Mosquitoes

(d) Deer flies

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454. Scientific name of horse fly is ……

(a) Tabanus equinum

(b) Oestrus ovis

(c) Simulium sp

(d) None of the above

455. Which of the following is a non granular WBC?

a. Lymphocytes

b. Neutrophil

c. Basophil

d. Eosinophil

456. In Classification of helminthes the higher taxa platyhelminthes containing

helminthes of veterinary importance are :

(a) Flat worm

(b) Round worm

(c) Thornyheaded worms

(d) None

457. In Filarial nematode, the life cycle is……

(a) Direct

(b) Direct and Indirect

(c) Indirect

(d) None

458. Morocco leather condition is caused by :

(a) Hemonchus contortus

(b) Ostertagia ostertagia

(c) Cooperia curtesi

(d) None

459. Strongylus vulgaris is responsible for :

(a) Colic in ruminants

(b) Paralysis in horse

(c) Colic in horse

(d) None

460 Bunostomum trigonocephalum is hook worms of :

(a) Sheep and Goat

(b) Cattle

(c) Dog

(d) None

461. Disease caused by Clostridium septicum is-

(A) Black Quarter

(B) Enterotoxaemia

(C) Braxy

(D) Tetanus

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462. Sulphur granules in yellowish pus is seen in-

(A) Glanders

(B) Strangles

(C) Staphylococcosis

(D) Actinomycosis

463. Toxins of organism causes peripheral nerve paralysis in cattle-

(A) Botulism

(B) Tetanus

(C) Both

(D) None of the above

464. Diamond skin disease is primarily a disease of-

(A) Horse

(B) Lion

(C) Sow

(D) Turkey

465. In Johne’s disease, corrugation is not the feature in-

(A) Cattle

(B) Sheep

(C) Horse

(D) Both (B) and (C)

466. Most susceptible species for Haemorrhagic septicemia-

(A) Sheep

(B) Buffalo

(C) Cattle

(D) Pig

467. Erythritol sugar plays important role in pathogenesis of-

(A) Clostridium spp.

(B) Brucella spp.

(C) Bacillus spp.

(D) Corynebacterium spp.

468. Substance responsible for increase penetration of Lyssa virus-

(A) Hyaluronidase

(B) Erythriol

(C) Protagen

(D) Amylase

469. Crop mycosis in poultry is caused by-

(A) Bacteria

(B) Mycoplasma

(C) Fungi

(D) Virus

470. Brooder’s pneumonia in poultry is caused by-

(A) Candida albicans

(B) Aspergillus fumigatus

(C) Haemophilus paragallinarum

(D) Pasturella multocida

471. The best general anesthetic for canine is

a. Xylazine

b. Thiopental

c. Acepromazine

d. Ketamine

472. To deliver live pups, cesarean section is performed under

a. Thiopentone

b. Pentobarbitone

c. Acepromazine

d. Diazepam + Local anesthesia

473. To capture wild elephant the anesthetic used is

a. Xylazine

b. Etorphine

c. Medazolam

d. Morphin

474. The sedation in camel is performed by using xylazine intravenously

a. 2-3 ml

b. 8-10 ml

c. 25 -30 ml.

d. 30-40 ml

475. The best inhalation anesthetic for closed circuit is

a. Cyclopropane

b. Ether

c. Nitrous oxide

d. Chloroform

476. Deep chested dog is prone to following surgical condition

a. Intestinal obstruction

b. Diaphragmatic hernia

c. Gastric dilatation and torsion

d. Gastric ulcer

477. Pathognomic sign of sharp molar is

a. Quidding

b. Halitosis

c. Salivation

d. All of above

478. The development of pouch in lower neck just after feeding in case of buffalo is noticed in

a. Pyloric stenosis

b. Oesophageal ulcer

c. Choke

d. Oesophageal diverticulum

479. Continuous lacrimation in canine is characteristic sign of

a. Obstruction of lacrimal duct

b. Entropion

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c. Conjunctivitis

d. Ectropion

480. Myringotomy in canine is performed for the correction of

a. Otitis interna

b. Otitis media

c. Otitis externa

d. Othaematoma

481. Each of the following is an amino acid derivative EXCEPT:

a. Epinephrine

b. Melatonin

c. Thyroxine

d. TSH

482. Which of the following hormones does not act via a second messenger system?

a. Glucagon

b. Epinephrine

c. GH

d. Testosterone

483. What hypophyseal structure receives signals from the hypothalamus via the hypophyseal portal

system?

a. Follicular medulla

b. Adenohypophysis

c. Neurohypophysis

d. Pars intermedia

484. Low blood glucose typically results in the secretion of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Glucagon

b. Thyroxine

c. hGH

d. PTH

485. What hormone increases intestinal calcium absorption?

a. Calcitriol

b. Calcitonin

c. Parathormone

d. Pancreatic polypeptide

486. The ______ cells of the pancreas secrete insulin.

a. Chief

b. Principal

c. Alpha

d. Beta

487. Oxytocin is secreted by the:

a. Adenohypophysis

b. Neurohypophysis

c. Zona glomerulosa

d. Pars intermedia

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488. Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause:

a. Cretinism

b. Diabetes mellitus

c. Diabetes insipidus

d. Addison's disease

489. The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:

a. Pericardial cavity

b. Pericardium

c. Pleural Cavity

d. Mediastinum

490. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the:

a. Right atrium

b. Left atrium

c. Interventricular septum

d. Interatrial septum

491. In body netobimin is converted into

a) Albendazole

b) Mebendazole

c) Fenbendazole

d) Lobendazole

492. Which one of the followings not an anaesthetic?

a) Phencyclidine

b) Xylazine

c ) Ketamine

d) Cyclopropane

493. Diazepam does not possess the following action

a) Sedative

b) Anticonvulsant

c) Analgesic

d) Anxiolytic

494. The full life of drug is usually approximately

a) Twice its half-life

b) Ten times its half- life

c) Five times its half- life

d) None of the above

495. The following is not a phenothiazine derivative

a) Triflupromazine

b) Chlorpromazine

c) Promazine

d) Reserpine

496. Xylazine does not have the following effect

a) Analgesic

b) Muscle relaxant

c) Sedative

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d) Antipyretic

497. Which one of the following has high water to lipid partition coefficient?

a) Chlorpromazine

b) Ether

c) Halothane

d) None of the above

498. With which of the following anaesthetic is eructation reflex not affected.

a) Ketamine

b) Xylazine

c) Phenobarbitone

d) Equithesin

499. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Thiopentone is ultra short acting barbiturate

b) Thiopentone is administered by intramuscular route

c) Thiopentone administered typically shows barbiturate apnoea.

d) Thiopentone is yellowish powder used as a sodium salt.

500. Which one of the following is an example of physical antagonism?

a) Administration of activated charcoal in poisoning

b) Relief of acidity using antacids

c) Administration of Atropine in organophosphate poisoning

d) None of the above