Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 6 Veterinary Sciences

Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 6 Veterinary Sciences

Bold Option is correct answer 

 501. The body region of the sheep in which best quality wool is found

a. Breech

b. Shoulder

c. Head

d. Tail

502. A growing female sheep between sixth month to maturity.

a. Doeling

b. Wedder

c. Hogget

d. Lamb

503. Native place of sannem is

a. England

b. Switzerland

c. U. S. A.

d. China

504. Major breeding season of Indian sheep is

a. June to august

b. December to January

c. March to april

d. Year round

505. The term used for meat of rabbit is

a. Mutton

b. Pork

c. Chevon

d. Venison

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506. Location of rabbit breeding farm in Gujarat

a. Bhuj

b. Ankleshwar

c. Morbid

d. Mandvi

507. India has total number of sheep breed

a. 40

b. 15

c. 20

d. 28

508. Gurej sheep breed found in

a. J & K

b. Himachal Pradesh

c. Hariyana

d. Punjab

509. Spiti is the horse breed found at

a. J & K

b. Himachal Pradesh

c. Hariyana

d. Punjab

510. The disease found in sheep during monsoon

a. Foot rot

b. F. M. D.

c. Enterotoxaemia

d. Rinderpest

511. Bacteria which require living medium for their growth is

a. Mycoplasma and Leptospira

b. Chlamydia and Rickettsia

c. Rickettsia and Mycoplasma

d. None of these

512. Pallisade arrangement is characteristic of

a. Corynebacterium

b. E.coli

c. Campylobacter

d. Listeria

513. Mycoplasma organisms are pleomorphic in nature due to

a. Absence of cell wall

b. Absence of rigid cell wall

c. Small in size

d. Species specific in nature

514. Periodic opthalmia in horses is a sequel of

a. Glanders

b. Mycoplasmosis

c. Equine leptospirosis

d. Babesiosis

515. Chlamydia can be stained with following stains except:

a. Gram’s stain

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b. Macchiavello stain

c. Gimenez stain

d. Castaneda stain

516. Tuberculin test is based on

a. Delayed hypersensitivity

b. Arthus reaction

c. Anaphylactic reaction

d. All of above

517. Calf hood vaccination is advisable for

a. Brucellosis

b. Salmonellosis

c. Pasteurellosis

d. Neonatal calf diarrhoea

518. The germ tube production is characteristic of

a. Candida albicans

b. Corynebacterium pyogenes

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

519. Experimentally Mycobacterium leprae can be cultivated on

a. Bacterial media with mycobactin.

b. Cell culture system.

c. Nine banded armadillo

d. None of the above

520. Viruses that exist in cells and cause recurrent disease are considered

a. Oncogenic

b. Cytopathic

c. Latent

d. Resistant

521. For transformation reactions competent E. coli cells can be prepared by treating log phase E. coli

cells with:

a. Calcium Chloride

b. Magnesium Chloride

c. EDTA

d. None of the above

522. A DNA molecule from external source can be inserted into the host cells by following methods:

a. Heat shock treatment

b. Electroporation

c. Lipofection

d. All of the above

523. In a PCR reaction two short oligonucleotide used which flank the DNA sequence to be amplified

is called:

a. Primer

b. Probe

c. Template

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d. None of the above

524. The source of Taq polymerase used in the PCR reaction is:

a. E. coli

b. Thermus aquaticus

c. Both

d. None

525. The source of “Reverse transcriptase” enzyme used for c-DNA synthesis is:

a. Moloney murine leukemia virus (MuLV)

b. Avian myeloblastosis virus (AMV)

c. Both

d. None

526. Quantitative studies using PCR technique can be done with:

a. RT-PCR

b. Real Time PCR

c. Micro array

d. None of the above

527. Most type II restriction endonucleases recognize and cleave DNA within particular sequence of 48 nucleotides which have two fold rotational symmetry. Such sequences are called:

a. Palindromes

b. Short tandem repeats

c. Both

d. None

528. For restriction analysis of DNA molecule, the type of “restriction endonucleases” used are:

a. Type I RE

b. Type II RE

c. Type III RE

d. None

529. c-DNA can be synthesized on a RNA template using following primers:

a. Sequence specific primers

b. Oligo dT

c. Random hexamers

d. All of the above

530. Isoschizomers are Restriction enzymes which:

a. Recognize and cut the same sequence

b. Recognize the same sequence but cut site vary

c. Both

d. None

531. What is the name of the main lymphatic duct that arises in the abdomen?

a. tracheal duct

b. cisterna chyli

c. right lymphatic duct

d. cisterna magna

532. Which part of the respiratory system is also responsible for the production of sound?

a. hyoid apparatus

b. eustachian tube

c. pharynx

d. larynx

533. Which muscle is responsible for increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity during inspiration?

a. diaphragm

b. hypxial

c. external oblique

d. epaxial

534. The basin shaped structure in the center of the kidney is called

a. cortex

b. hilus

c. pelvis

d. medulla

535. In which layer of the skin are the sensory nerve endings found?

a. hypodermis

b. epidermis

c. dermis

d. subcutis

536. Which is the most developed special sense in the birds?

a. sight

b. touch

c. smell

d. taste

537. The space between the incisors and the cheek teeth of rabbits and rodents is known as the

a. diastema

b. philtrum

c. dewlap

d. acromion

538. Visceral skeleton present in camel

a. Os penis

b. Os phrenic

c. Os cardis

d. Os rostrum

539. Which is the type of placenta present in bitch?

a. Zonary

b. Diffuse

c. Discoidal

d. Cotyledonary

540. Total number of incissor teeth in ox

a. Six

b. Four

c. Eight

d. Ten

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541. Outer covering of the nerve is

a. Endoneurium

b. Perineurim

c. Epineurium

d. Epitendineum

542. Which one of the following is a exoskeleton?

a. Hoof

b. Metacarpus

c. Sternum

d. Ulna

543. Which one of the gland is a apocrine gland?

a. Mammary gland

b. Testes

c. Parotid salivary gland

d. Pancreas

544. Part of the peritoneum that covers the fallopian tube with abdominal cavity:

a. Mesometrium

b. Mesosalphinx

c. Mesoovarium

d. Broad ligament

545. Which of the following plays a part in thermoregulation?

a. Hair

b. Claws

c. Sebaceous gland

d. Meibomian gland

546. Which of the following is used for predicting future performance of individuals

(a) Heritability

(b) Repeatability

(c) Genetic correlation

(d) None of the above

547. The response to selection increases when

(a) Proportion of individuals selected decreases

(b) Proportion of individuals selected increases

(c) Heritability of the trait is low

(d) None of the above

548. The heritability of a character in narrow sense will be more when it is

controlled by

(a) Genes with non-additive effects

(b) Genes with additive effects

(c) Both (a) and (c)

(d) None of the above

549. The genotypic value of quantitative traits is

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(a) Sum total of effects

(b) sum total of gene effects

(c) Sum total of additive effects

(d) None of the above

550. The specific combining ability of a line is due to gene effects

(a) Epitasis

(b) Dominance

(c) Over-dominance

(d) All of above

551. The dry period in buffaloes can be reduced by

(a) Individual selection

(b) Better management

(c) Family selection

(d) Progeny testing

552. The change in the fat % when selection is made for higher milk yield

is due to

(a) Natural selection

(b) (b) Direct selection

(c) Indirect selection

(d) None of these

553. The estimate of heritability of egg yield cannot be obtained by

(a) Paternal half-sib correlation

(b) Regression of daughter on dam

(c) Regression of daughter on sire

(d) Maternal half-sib correlation

554. The precision of heritability estimate is known by its

(a) Standard error

(b) Magnitude

(c) Method of estimation

(d) Deviation from

555. For selection of individuals for traits measured after life, we will prefer

(a) Indirect selection

(b) Family selection

(c) Pedigree selection

(d) Any of these

556. The regression of offspring on mid parent provides the estimate of

(a) . h2

(b) . h2

(c) h2

(d) Ö h

557. The accuracy of estimating breeding value of a sire increased by

(a) Decreasing the number of sires under test

(b) Decreasing the number of progeny of sire

(c) Increasing the number of progeny of sire

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(d) None of the above

558. The Osborne index for cockerel selection is based on information from

(a) Individual performance and dam and sire families.

(b) Dam and sire families

(c) Progeny and pedigree

(d) Individual performance and pedigree

559. The generation interval can be reduced by using

(a) Genetic markers

(b) Progeny information

(c) Life time information

(d) Multi-trait selection

560. Diploid number of chromosomes in sheep is

(a) 60

(b) 54

(c) 38

(d) 64

561. Both hind limbs retained in the uterus beneath the body of the posteriorly presented fetus

a) Dog sitting posture

b) Breech presentation

c) Poll presentation

d) Wry neck

562. Acute angulation of the vertebral column of the fetus causing dorsal approximation of its head and

tail is a

a) Perosomus elumbis

b) Amorphus globosus

c) Otter calf

d) Schistosomus reflexus

563. The release of which hormone is associated with the Fergusion’s reflex .

a) Estroegn

b) Oxytocin

c) Progesterone

d) Relaxin

564. Penile Transmissible Neoplasia is observed in the

a) Ram

b) Stallion

c) Dog

d) Bull

565. Androgen Binding protein is secreted by

a) Ley dig cells

b) Sertoli cells

c) Spermatogonia

d) Efferent ducts

566. Eversion of galeacapitis and crater shaped depressions in the nucleus

a) Dag defect

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b) Diadem defect

c) Corck screw defect

d) Abaxial defect

567. Effecting a change in the presentation is known as

a) Rotation

b) Version

c) Extension

d) Flexion

568. Non dilation of cervix causing dystocia in ewes is known as

a) Vertex

b) Foot nape

c) Ring womb

d) wry neck

569. Pattern assumed by the semen upon drying on a glass slide

a) Fern pattern

b) Crenellation pattern

c) Cork screw pattern

d) Zig Zag pattern

570. Test used to know the functional integrity of sperm membrane

a) Sperm mucus penetration test

b) Hypo osmotic swelling test

c) Hamster egg penetration test

d) High temperature viability test

571. The end of the diestrus period is due to

a. Recruitment of the ovulatory follicular wave.

b. A decrease in estradiol negative feedback.

c. Regression of the corpus luteum.

d. An increase in estradiol levels coming from the preovulatory follicle.

572. In the mare, transition from the non-breeding to the breeding season is caused by

a. A decrease in melatonin.

b. A decrease in the day length.

c. A switch from positive to negative feedback by estradiol.

d. The presence of progesterone coming from the corpus luteum.

573. Granulosa cells are similar to Sertoli Cells in that both

a. Have FSH receptors.

b. Have LH receptors.

c. Produce testosterone.

d. Have very low levels of cAMP.

574. The blood testis barrier is due to

a. The inhibition to growth of blood vessels in the seminiferous tubules.

b. The presence of gap junctions between Sertoli cells.

c. The presence of tight junctions between Sertoli cells.

d. The basement membrane between the Sertoli cells and the interstitial space where the

Leydig cells are located.

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575. It has been demonstrated that dogs can be trained to detect estrus in cattle. Which of the following

senses is being used by the dog to accomplish this task?

a. Smell

b. Sight

c. Touch

d. Hearing

576. Intense educational activity for motivation and mobilization of community to action Is known as

(A) Awareness

(B) Campaign

(C) Demonstration

(D) G.D.

577. Diagram presentation of facts or ideas is known as

(A) Chart

(B) Poster

(C) Diagram

(D) Book

578. A statement of policy to guide decision and action in a consistent manner is

(A) Principle

(B) Law

(C) Philosophy

(D) Hypothesis

579. Call mode by farmers at the veterinary hospital for getting information is called

(A) Office call

(B) Personal call

(C) Community call

(D) Tall call

580. A visual display which is never used alone for teaching programmed is

(A) Chart

(B) Flipchart

(C) Poster

(D) Banner

581. Chepest, Oldest & most effective aids of teaching is

(A) Black Board

(B) White board

(C) Display board

(D) Interactive board

582. A Statement of assumption validity of which is yet to be tested is known as

(A) Hypothesis

(B) Theory

(C) Principles

(D) Philosophy

583. A miniature replica of an object is called

(A) Specimen

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(B) Model

(C) Sample

(D) Picture

584. A System of social relationship in and through which we live is known as

(A) Society

(B) Communication

(C) Cast

(D) Creed

585. Combination of seeing, hearing, and doing may help to retain----------in teaching Learning

(A) 50%

(B) 60%

(C) 70%

(D) 80%

586. AMUL was established in

(A) 1846

(B) 1848

(C) 1850

(D) 1950

587. Air and water are nature of goods

(A) Material

(B) Nominated

(C) Free

(D) Consumable

588. The demand is salt is

(A) Inelastic

(B) Elastic

(C) Prefect elastic

(D) Non elastic

589. AGMARK indicates

(A) Quality & Purity

(B) Quality

(C) Quantity

(D) Purity

590. Top level function is known as

(A) Management

(B) Administration

(C) Bureaucracy

(D) Line of control

591. Herd registration scheme in Gujarat is running for the breed

a. Mehasana buffalo

b. Gir cattle

c. Dangi cattle

d. Banni buffalo

592. The number of calving pen required on dairy farm depends on

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a. Breedable females

b. Fertility rate

c. Calving interval

d. All of above

593. Dehorning in calves can be done at

a. 1 to 5 days

b. 7 to 0 days

c. 11 to 20 days

d. More than 30 days

594. The pulsation ratio in milking machine should be kept within the limit of

a. 1 : 1

b. 2.5 : 1

c. Both a & b

d. None

595. The major input for maximum contribution to cost of milk production

a. Labour

b. Electricity

c. Feeding

d. Breeding

596. The buffalo population (Millions) in Gujarat state as per livestock census 2007

a. 8.77

b. 7.97

c. 2.01

d. 4.64

597. Nilgai belong to the animal in category

a. Wild ruminant

b. Wild non-ruminant

c. Domestic ruminant

d. Domestic non-ruminant

598. The gestation period (days) of leopard is

a. 62 – 65

b. 92 – 95

c. 112 – 120

d. 150 -180

599. The birth weight of piglet in kg is

a. 2 – 4 kg

b. 3 – 6 kg

c. 1 – 2 kg

d. 0.5 – 1 kg

600. Stag is the term utilize for

a. Castrated goat

b. Castrated horse

c. Castrated sheep

d. Castrated pig