Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 7 Veterinary Sciences

 Drprofessionals Question Bank Part 7 Veterinary Sciences

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601. Tongue rolling is the type of behaviour in cow

a. Detrimental

b. Stereotyped

c. Retired

d. Apathetic

602. Pig farming is the most developed in

a. Himachal Pradesh

b. West Bengal

c. Bihar

d. Madhya Pradesh

603. Certification agency in organic farming is

a. IARI

b. NDRI

c. APEDA

d. NPDP

604. Hissardale crossbred sheep breed developed from

a. Australian merino

b. Bikaneri

c. Both

d. None of above

605. Fat tailed sheep breed found in India is

a. Macheri

b. Chokla

c. Bhakarwal

d. Marwari

606 A narrow band surrounding the yolk that is almost void of blood vessels is known as

a. Stream

b. Stigma

c. Strake

d. Strike

607 Chickens lay eggs on successive days is known as

a. Pause

b. Clutches

c. Persistency

d. Both b and c

608

Sometime the infundibulum loses power to pick up a yolks, and yolks accumulate in body

cavity. Such hen are known as

a. Poor layer

b. External layer

c. Internal layer

d. Faulty layer

609 Pigments responsible for egg shell colour is produced by

a. Magnum

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b. Vagina

c. Uterus

d. Isthmus

610 The brown colour of eggshell is due to which pigments

a. Carotenoids

b. Porphyrin

c. Xanthophylls

d. None of above

611 Preheating or pre-warming of egg is done

a. Before candling

b. Before Cold storage

c. Before Setting

d. Before Hatching

612

Eggs of average size and quality incubated in air with 50 to 60 % relative humidity, they will

lose approximately _____ % of their initial weight in 19 days of incubation

a. 6 %

b. 12 %

c. 18 %

d. 24 %

613 Best time for artificial insemination to get maximum fertility in poultry is

a. Early morning

b. Before noon

c. After Noon

d. Late evening

614 The ammonia concentration in the poultry house should not be more than

a. 2.5 ppm

b. 25 ppm

c. 50 ppm

d. 75 ppm

615 Nitrogen fixation is poor in

a. Cage house

b. Deep litter house

c. Both A & B

d. None of the above

616 Pullets grown during the period when most of the days have decreasing light are known as

a. In season flocks

b. Out season flocks

c. Mid season flocks

d. Odd season flocks

617 Pullets grown during the period when most of the days have increasing light are known as

a. In season flocks

b. Out season flocks

c. Mid season flocks

d. Odd season flocks

618 Birds were placed in the laying house just before the onset of egg production is known as

a. Housing

b. Shifting

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c. Laying

d. None of above

619

Replacing old males in a flock with a set of new and younger male after about two-thirds of the

egg production period is known as

a. Replacement of flock

b. Spiking the flock

c. Placement of flock

d. All of above

620.Distance between the bulbs in poultry house should be _____times the distance from the bulb to

the bird level.

a. 0.5 times

b. 5.0 times

c. 15 times

d. 1.5 times

621. Herpes simplex seen in….

a) Cattle

b) Dog

c) Elephant

d) None of above

622. Volumetric method for determination of fat% of milk.

a. Waste fall balance

b. Soxhlet method

c. Richmond sliding method

d. Garber method.

623. Which of the disinfectant is effective against wide range of micro organism in floor,wall and

equipments

a)quick time

b)cresol 2-3% in hot water

c)costic soda 5%

d)Nil

624. Coagulation of water by chemical is essential in

a)slow sand filter

b)rapid sand filter

c)boiling

d)None

625. The desirable limit for fluoride should be(mg/litre)

a) 0.2

b) 1.5

c) 2.5

d) 0.6-1.8

626. In strong sewage B.O.D. is (mg/litre)

a) 50

b) 100

c) 300

d) None

627. Who was first chief of VPH in WHO

a) Dr.Guerin

b) Dr.Daniel E.Salmon

c) Dr.Karl F.Meyer

d) Dr.Martin Kaplan

628 Example of cyclozoonosis…

a) Toxoplasmosis

b) Taeniasis

c) Echinococcosis

d) Both b) & c)

629. Example of algal zoonosis

a) Scrub typhus

b) Actinomycosis

c) Fascioliasis

d) Protothecosis

630. In anthrax by which reaction Bacillus organism detected in blood smear

a) Mac Fadyean’s reaction

b) Zeil Neelsen staining

c) Ascoli’s precipitation test

d) None of above

631. Medium which is used in isolation of T.B. organism

A )XLD agar

b) LJ medium

c) EMJH medium

d) blood agar

632. Greenish colors of water is developed due to…

a) Iron

b) Organic matter

c) Algae flora

d) None of above

633. Ozone layer found at which height

a)10-20 km

b)70-80km

c)40-50km

d)90-100km

634. Optimum temperature range for adult pig is between

a) 0-3 0c

b) 40-500c

c) 4-300c

d)30-350c

635. Which is Iron bacterium

a)Crenothrix

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b)Gellionella

c)Klebsiella

d)Both a) & b)

636. Incineration of carcass done by heating at which temperature

a)6000c

b)8000c

c)13000c

d)10000c

637. Oxyuris equi are commonly known as :

(a) Pin worm

(b) Caecal worm

(c) Stomach worm

(d) None

638. The condition ‘Sweating blood’ in horse is caused by :

(a) Parafilaria equi

(b) Dirofilaria immitis

(c) Parafilaria multipapillosa

(d) None

639. Seteria labiato-papillosa of cattle causing :

(a) Lumber paralysis in horse

(b) Lumber paralysis in sheep and goat

(c) Lumber paralysis in cattle

(d) None

640. The largest nematode of domestic animal is :

(a) Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus

(b) Dioctophyma renale

(c) Ascaris sum

(d) None

641. Acute fasciolosis is common in :

(a) Cattle

(b) Sheep

(c) Buffalo

(d) Horse

642. Triclabendazole is a drug of choice for :

(a) Liver fluke

(b) Haemonchus nematode

(c) Lung worm

(d) None

643. The blood fluke are usually present in :

(a) Hepatic vein

(b) Portal vein

(c) Mesenteric vein

(d) None

644. Taenia multiceps is tape worm of dog and it’s larval stage present in sheep/cattle

is known as :

(a) Coenurus serialis

(b) Hydatid

(c) Coenurus cerebralis

(d) None

645. Sputum is a diagnostic material in two infections of dog

(a) Ancylostoma caninum and Dictophyma renale

(b) Filaroides and Angiostrongylus

(c) Schistosoma nasale and Stephanurus

(d) None

646. Smallest and most pathogenic tapeworm of poultry is :

(a) Amoebotaenia

(b) Davainea proglotina

(c) Raillietina echinobothrida

(d) None

647. A common term for myiasis caused by members of the calliphoridae is :

(a) Blow-fly Strike

(b) Pediculosis

(c) Mange

(d) None

648. The larval of Oestrus ovis are commonly referred to as :

(a) Gnats

(b) Warble

(c) Bots

(d) None

649. The condition ‘false gid’ in sheep is caused by :

(a) Multiceps multiceps

(b) Oestrus ovis larva

(c) Setaria digitata

(d) None

650. Ornithodorous moubata is :

(a) Hard tick

(b) Soft tick

(c) Mites

(d) Flea

651. Animal Protozoa are unicellular and they are :

(a) Eukaryotic

(b) Prokaryotic

(c) Monera

(d) None

652. Circling disease in cattle is caused by-

(A) Listeria monocytogenes

(B) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

(C) Streptococcus equi

(D) Chlamydia psittacii

653. Intranuclear inclusion bodies are seen in-

(A) Pox diseases

(B) Herpes virus infection

(C) Adeno virus infection

(D) Lyssa virus infection

654. Negri bodies are seen in Rabies which are-

(A) Intranuclear

(B) Intracytoplasmic

(C) Both

(D) May be intranuclear or intracytoplasmic

655. Enlargement of Bursa of fabricius in poultry is seen in-

(A) CRD

(B) IB

(C) RD

(D) IBD

656. Zebra marking is predominant feature of-

(A) Johne’s disease

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) Rinder pest

(D) Both (A) and (C)

657. CBPP differs from CCPP in-

(A) Both occur in same species

(B) Sequestra formation

(C) Mode of transmission

(D) Pathogenesis

658. Which bacterium is predisposed by Fasiola hepatica infestation-

(A) Bacillus spp.

(B) Clostridium spp.

(C) Leptospira spp.

(D) Pasturella spp.

659. Which is the most potent aflatoxin-

(A) M1

(B) M2

(C) B1

(D) B2

660. Curled toe paralysis in chicken is due to deficiency of-

(A) Vitamin B12

(B) Vitamin B1

(C) Niacin

(D) Vitamin B2

661. Mn deficiency is chicken will lead to-

(A) Pica

(B) Star grazing condition

(C) Crazy chick disease

(D) Slipped Tendon

662. Phosphorous deficiency in soil will predispose the cattle to-

(A) Haemorrhagic septicemia

(B) Botulism

(C) Anthrax

(D) Mucosal disease

663. Black head disease is predominately a disease of-

(A) Cattle caused by Parasite

(B) Poultry caused by Parasite

(C) Horse caused by Virus

(D) Pig caused by Virus

664. Which of the following is correctly matched-

(A) Tubercular lesions are calcified-Buffalo

(B) Johne’s disease-Foul smelling diarrhea

(C) Avian spp.- Dry pus

(D) Lamb dysentery- Clostridium perfringens type D

665. Post mortem of chick shows foul smelling yellow-brown watery Yolk, fibrinous perihepatitis

and pericarditis, suspect the disease

(A)Infectious Coryza

(B) Fowl Typhoid

(C) Coli Bacillosis

(D) Infectious Bronchitis

666. Haemorrhages at the tip of the proventricular gland is the pathognomic lesion s seen in-

(A)Ranikhet disease

(B) Chronic respiratory disease

(C) Infectious bursal disease

(D) Avian influenza

667. The non-invasive confirmative diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia in buffalo is

a. Auscultation

b. Contrast radiography

c. Rumenotomy

d. Plain radiography

668. Liptek test is performed for the diagnosis of

a. LDA

b. Vagal indigestion

c. Ruminal acidosis

d. Ruminal tympany

669. Metallic foreign bodies are mostly recovered from

a. Esophagus

b. Reticulum

c. Rumen

d. Abomasum

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670. The basic cause of vagal indigestion in cattle is

a. Trauma

b. Inflammatory conditions

c. Ruminal impaction

d. Liver dysfunction

671. Distal intestinal obstruction in bullock is diagnosed by

a. Clinical signs

b. Hematology

c. Per rectal examination

d. History

672. Common site for obstructive uroliths in bullock is

a. Prescrotal

b. Neck of bladder

c. Pelvic urethra

d. Post scrotal

673. The surgical correction of teat pea in cattle is performed by

a. Teat slitter

b. Hudson teat spider

c. Teat tumour extractor

d. Teat dilator

674. Umbilical hernia is most commonly seen in

a. Cattle

b. Dog

c. Pig

d. Horse

675. During surgery arterial bleeding is controlled by

a. Haemostat

b. Thumb forceps

c. Allies tissue forcep

d. Rat tooth forceps

676. The best technique for making instruments germ free is

a. Direct flame

b. Boiling water

c. Chemical

d. Autoclave

677. Sweeny is characterized by atrophy of

a. All muscles

b. Gastrocnemious muscle

c. Scapular muscle

d. None of above

678. Laminitis means that

a. Animal walks lame

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b. Inflammation of joints

c. Inflammation of laminae

d. None of above

679. Treatment of upward fixation of patella

a, Planter tenotomy

b. Medial patellar desmotomy

c. Middle patellar desmotomy

d. Cunion tenotomy

680. Inflammation of stifle joint is known as

a. Laminitis

b. Omarthritis

c. Gonitis

d. Joint mice

681. Oozing of inflammatory exudates at coronary band in horse hoof is known as

a. Arthritis

b. Side bones

c. Quittor

d. Curb

682. Which blood vessel does NOT bring deoxygenated blood directly to the heart?

a. Pulmonary vein

b. Coronary Sinus

c. Inferior Vena cava

d. Superior Vena Cava

683. If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the

appearance of the EKG?

a. PR interval would be smaller

b. QRS interval would be shorter

c. There would be more P waves than QRS complexes

d. There would be more QRS complexes than P waves

684. A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely. This is known as:

a. Stenosis

b. Heart Block

c. Ischemia

d. MI

685. Accodrding to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, CO is directly related to:

a. Ventricular muscle mass

b. Heart Rate

c. Amount of blood returning to the heart

d. ESV

686. The T Wave on an EKG represents:

a. Ventricular Depolarization

b. Ventricular Repolarization

c. Atrial Depolarization

d. Atrial Repolarization

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e. Ventricular Systole

687. Cardiac output is equal to:

a. HR x SV

b. HR/SV

c. EDV - ESV

d. (EDV-SV) x HR

688. Which of the following represents the outermost layer of the heart?

a. Epicardium

b. Parietal pericardium

c. Myocardium

d. Subendocardium

689. Which of the following cell types is responsible for skeletal muscle regeneration?

a. Myoepithelial cell

b. Myofibril

c. Satellite cell

d. Myofibroblast

690. How many T-tubules lie within a single skeletal muscle sarcomere?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

691. The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the:

a. Perichondrium

b. Perineurium

c. Perimysium

d. Epimysium

692. An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the:

a. A Band

b. I Band

c. Z Line

d. H Band

693. Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle fibers?

a. Striated

b. Typically voluntary

c. Multinucleate

d. Branched

694. Which of the following cells is reponsible for myelin formation in the peripheral nervous system?

a. Astrocyte

b. Oligodendrocyte

c. Schwann cell

d. Microglial cell

695. The peripheral nervous system includes the:

a. Somatic nervous system

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b. Brain

c. Spinal cord

d. Nuclei

696. A neuron with many short dendrites and a single long axon is a:

a. Multipolar neuron

b. Bipolar neuron

c. Unipolar neuron

d. None of the above

697. Graded Dose- Response curve has

a) Shape of hyperbola on simple graph paper and 'S' shape on semi- log paper

b) Shape of 'S' on both simple and semi-log graph paper

c) Shape of 'S' on simple graph paper and shape of hyperbola on semi log paper.

d) Shape of hyperbola on both simple and semi log graph paper.

698. Which of the following inhibits uptake of acetycholine in to vesicles

a) Vesamicol

b) Cobra toxin

c) Bungaro toxin

d) Botulinum toxin

699 Which of following is G-protein coupled receptors?

a) Muscurinic

b) Nicotinic

c) Alpha adrenergic receptors

d) a and b

700. Which of following is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis

a) Dopamine

b) Neostigmine

c) Atropine

d) Benzodiazepam