Drprofessionals Veterinary Pathology Question Bank Objective Part 2

 Drprofessionals Veterinary Pathology Question Bank Objective Part 2

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1.      Condition in which local loss of pigment occurs, is called as-

a)      Albinism

b)      Hemosiderosis

c)      Leucoderma

d)      Acanthosis nigricans

2.      Large quantity of hemosiderin is deposited in liver and kidneys in-

a)      Babesiosis

b)      Leptospirosis

c)      Equine infectious anemia

d)      Dicrocelium dendriticum

3.      In vitamin E deficient animals, a peculiar wax-like acidfast material accumulates in uterine muscle fibers, ovary and testes, is-

a)      Amyloid

b)      Byssinosis

c)      Hematoidin

d)     Ceroid

4.      Transport of pigment particles by macrophages to the connective tissue in the corium is called as-

a)      Phagocytosis

b)      Mosaicism

c)      Tatooing

d)      Euploidy

5.      Porphyria is most commonly seen in-

a)      Cattle and swine

b)      Sheep and goats

c)      Laboratory animals

d)      Horses and dogs

6.      Papilliferous cystadenoma of bile duct epithelium in rabbits is caused by-

a)      Gongylonema neoplasticum

b)      Eimeria stiedae

c)      Spirocerca lupi

d)      Cysticercus fasciolaris

7.      Model virus for tumor research work is-

a)      Polyoma virus

b)      Rous sarcoma virus

c)      Shope papilloma virus

d)      Reo virus

 

 

8.      Tumor originating from all germinal layers is-

a)      Neurofibromata

b)      Dermoid cyst

c)      Teratoma

d)      Sertoli cell tumor

9.      In myxomatosis of rabbit inclusion bodies are-

a)      Intranuclear

b)     Intracytoplasmic

c)      Both

d)      None of the above

10.  Which tumor is called as gaint cell tumor-

a)      Osteoma

b)      Osteosarcoma

c)      Osteoclastoma

d)      Osteomyxoma

11.  Dilatation of liver sinusoids is called as-

a)      Hamartomas

b)      Telangietasis

c)      Recklinghausen’s disease

d)      Myxomatosis

12.  Astrocytoma is single in all animal species EXCEPT-

a)      Pig

b)     Cattle

c)      Fowl

d)      Horse

13.  Which disease is also called as ‘Avian Reticulitis’-

a)      Avian leucosis complex

b)      Ranikhet disease

c)      Marek’s disease

d)      Infectious bursal disease

14.  Which disease is also called as ‘Big Liver Disease’-

a)      Avian leucosis complex

b)      Ranikhet disease

c)      Marek’s disease

d)      Infectious bursal disease

15.  Sciatic nerve is affected unilaterally in-

a)      Avian leucosis complex

b)      Ranikhet disease

c)      Marek’s disease

d)      Infectious bursal disease

16.  Tumors of parathyroid gland produces condition called as-

a)      Lumpy jaw

b)      Rubber jaw

c)      Lock jaw

d)      Bottle jaw

 

17.  A pathological condition in which a shunt connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta is called as-

a)      Intraventricular foramina

b)      Tetrology of fallot

c)      Patent foramen ovale

d)     Patent ductus arteriosus

18.  A pathological condition in which right atrium communicates with left atrium is called as-

a)      Intraventricular foramina

b)      Tetrology of fallot

c)      Patent foramen ovale

d)      Patent ductus arteriosus

19.  Macrophages laden with lipoids seen in atherosclerosis are called as-

a)      Gitter cells

b)      Limmocytes

c)      Foam cells

d)      Microglial cells

20.  Term used for hardening of artery is-

a)      Atherosclerosis

b)     Arteriosclerosis

c)      Arteritis

d)      None of the above

21.  Local dilatation of artery is called as-

a)      Arteritis

b)     Aneurysm

c)      Thromboangitis

d)      Polyarteritis nodusa

22.  Type of aneurysm in which a pouch is formed on one side of the wall, is-

a)      Fusiform aneurysm

b)      Circoid aneurysm

c)      Saccular aneurysm

d)      Arteriovenous aneurysm

 

 

23.  Stagnation of blood in the dilated veins causes pain is called as-

a)      Phlebolith

b)      Phlebitis

c)      Aneurysm

d)     Varicose veins

24.  Aneurysm of minute arteries is called as-

a)      Berry aneurysm

b)      Polyarteritis nodusa

c)      Arteriovenous aneurysm

d)      None of the above

25.  Lymphadenitis is inflammation of-

a)      Lymph node

b)      Lymph vessel

c)      Both of the above

d)      None of the above

26.  Erythropoiesis is intravascular in-

a)      Swine

b)      Cattle

c)      Dog

d)     Fowl

27.  Erythrocytes that have a narrow rim of hemoglobin surrounding a large pale area are called as-

a)      Cabot rings

b)      Anisocytosis

c)      Annulocytes

d)      Leptocytes

28.  Bluish thread like rings in RBC’s and which are nuclear remnants are called as-

a)      Crenation

b)      Pessary cells

c)      Cabot rings

d)      Basophilic stippling

29.  Abnormal notching of the erythrocytes is called as-

a)      Crenation

b)      Pessary cells

c)      Cabot rings

d)      Basophilic stippling

 

 30.  Refractile inclusions found in RBC’s of horses that undergo phenothiazine therapy are called as-

a)      Howell-Jolly bodies

b)      Annulocytes

c)      Drepanocytes

d)     Heinz-bodies

31.  Thin erythrocytes with larger surface without increase in volume is called as-

a)      Drepanocytes

b)     Leptocytes

c)      Annulocytes

d)      Microcytes

32.  Crescent shaped RBC’s characteristic of sickle cell anemia are called as-

a)      Leptocytes

b)      Annulocytes

c)      Drepanocytes

d)      Macrocytes

33.  Ovalocytes(elliptical RBC’s) are present in-

a)      Fowl

b)     Camel

c)      Cattle

d)      Dog

34.  Anemia which is due to failure of erythrocyte maturation factor is called as-

a)      Dyshemopoietic anemia

b)      Macrocytic hypochromic anemia

c)      Aplastic anemia

d)      Hemolytic anemia

35.  Anemia which is due to replacement of bone marrow by other tissues is called as

a)      Dyshemopoietic anemia

b)      Macrocytic hypochromic anemia

c)      Aplastic anemia

d)     Myelophthisic anemia

36.  Acute hemorrhagic anemia is caused by-

a)      Anaplasmosis

b)      Snake venom

c)      Deficiency of folic acid

d)     Sweet clover toxicity

 

37.  Which of the following pair is correctly matched-

a)      Excess onion- Haemorragic anemia

b)     Aplastic anemia- Ionising radiation

c)      Deficiency of folic acid- Microcytic anemia

d)      Defecieny of iron- Macrocytic anemia

38.  Active toxic principle in onion which causes anemia is-

a)      n-propyl disulphide

b)      Ricin

c)      Both of the above

d)      None of the above

39.  In hemorrhagic anemia the type of anemia will be-

a)      Macrocytic normochromic

b)      Microcytic hypochromic

c)      Normocytic normochromic

d)      Microcytic normochromic

40.  Hemophilia is found in both sexes and not sex linked in

a)      Fowl

b)     Swine

c)      Horse

d)      Cattle

41.  Ruptured immature neutrophils are called as-

a)      Pessary cells

b)      Dust cells

c)      Basket cells

d)      Dohle’s bodies

42.  Which of the following doesn’t have lymph nodes-

a)      Fowl

b)      Camel

c)      Swine

d)      All of the above

43.  Granulomatous lymphadenitis with caseation and calcification occurs in all of the following EXCEPT-

a)      Tuberculosis

b)      Glanders

c)      Johne’s disease

d)     Strangles

 

 

44.  Splenomegaly in fowl is seen in-

a)      ALC

b)      Spirochetosis

c)      Both of the above

d)      None of the above

45.  Excessive phagocytic activity of the spleen is called as-

a)      Hypersplenism

b)      Splenomegaly

c)      Any term can be used

d)      None of the above

46.  Chronic suppurative inflammation of young pigs caused by Spherophorus necrophorus is called as-

a)      Rhinitis

b)      Nasal granuloma

c)      Rhinohyperplasia

d)      Atrophic rhinitis

47.  Infectious sinusitis caused by Mycoplasma sp. is most commonly seen in-

a)      Chicken

b)      Dog

c)      Turkey

d)      Sheep

48.  Which condition is termed as ‘Broken-wind’ or ‘Heaves’ in horses-

a)      Chronic alveolar emphysema

b)      Acute alveolar emphysema

c)      Chronic bronchitis

d)      Pulmonary hemorrhage

49.  Which of the following statement is true-

a)      Pneumonitis specifically means inflammation of alveolar wall

b)      Pneumonia specifically means inflammation of alveolar lumen

c)      In animals lobular pneumonia is common

d)     All of the above

50.  Pneumonia in rarely met in-

a)      Swine

b)      Cattle

c)      Cat

d)      Dog

 

 

51.  Verminous pneumonia in horse is caused by-

a)      Dictyocaulus filaria

b)      Dictyocaulus viviparous

c)      Dictyocaulus arnifieldi

d)      All of the above

52.  The type of pneumonia in which alveolar septa are affected is called as-

a)      Bronchopneumonia

b)     Interstitial pneumonia

c)      Verminous pneumonia

d)      Mycotic pneumonia

53.  Psittacosis organism in birds causes-

a)      Bronchopneumonia

b)      Metastatic suppurative pneumonia

c)      Pulmonary adenomatosis

d)     Interstitial pneumonia

54.  Asteroid body in lungs is seen in-

a)      Bronchopneumonia

b)      Pulmonary adenomatosis

c)      Verminous pneumonia

d)     Mycotic pneumonia

55.  The condition in which exudate is absent in alveoli is seen in-

a)      Bronchopneumonia

b)     Pulmonary adenomatosis

c)      Verminous pneumonia

d)      Mycotic pneumonia

56.  Which of the following statement is incorrect-

a)      Inclusion bodies are present in Maedi affected lung

b)      Absence of rhinitis is seen in pulmonary adenomatosis

c)      Lymph nodes are affected in Jaagsiekte

d)      The course of disease in Maedi is longer.

57.  Inflammation of pleura is called as-

a)      Pleuritis

b)      Pleurisy

c)      Both terms are correct

d)      None of the above

58.  Glossitis is inflammation of-

a)      Gums

b)      Palate

c)      Lips

d)     Tongue

59.  Inflammation of palate is called as-

a)      Cheilitis

b)      Ranula

c)      Lampas

d)      Glossitis

60.  Epulis is fibroblastic tumor of-

a)      Gums

b)      Lips

c)      Palate

d)      Tongue

61.  Pathologic processes are very rarely found in-

a)      Salivary glands

b)      Brain

c)      Liver

d)      Kidney

62.  Salivary calculi is very common in-

a)      Cattle

b)     Horse

c)      Dog

d)      Swine

63.  Dilatation of esophagus is termed as-

a)      Ranula

b)      Epulis

c)      Acheresia

d)     Ectasia

64.  Diphtheric ingluvitis is seen in-

a)      Fowl pox

b)      Fowl cholera

c)      Fowl typhoid

d)      Fowl pest

65.  Gastritis in which stomach mucosa thrown into polypoid folds seen in-

a)      Bacterial gastritis

b)     Parasitic gastritis

c)      Viral gastritis

d)      Fungal gastritis

66.  Twisting of intestine on its own axis is called as-

a)      Volvulus

b)      Intussusception

c)      Incarceration

d)     Torsion

67.  Twisting of bowel on itself when it passes through a tear in the mesentery, is called as-

a)      Volvulus

b)      Intussusception

c)      Incarceration

d)      Torsion

68.  In cattle torsion is common in-

a)      Abomasum

b)     Caecum

c)      Colon

d)      All of the above

69.  Telescoping of a portion of intestine into another is called as-

a)      Volvulus

b)     Intussusception

c)      Incarceration

d)      Torsion

70.  Hernia of intestine is common in-

a)      Pigs and horses

b)      Dogs and cats

c)      Cattle and horses

d)      Pigs and buffalo

 

71.  Enteritis term usually applied for inflammation of-

a)      Small intestine

b)      Large intestine

c)      Both of the above

d)      Stomach

72.  Enteroliths are formed of-

a)      Triple phosphate

b)      Calcium carbonate

c)      Calcium oxalate

d)      None of the above

73.  Enteroliths are more commonly seen in-

a)      Small intestine in horses

b)      Small intestine in pigs

c)      Large intestine in horses

d)      Large intestine in pigs

74.  Difference between lesions of coli-granuloma and tuberculosis is-

a)      Coli granuloma lesions are not single

b)      Coli granuloma lesions are found in spleen and bones

c)      Tuberculosis lesions are found in spleen and bones

d)      All of the above

75.  Which type of necrosis of liver is seen in phosphorous poisoning-

a)      Periportal necrosis

b)      Mid zonal necrosis

c)      Paracentral necrosis

d)      Centrilobular necrosis

76.  Which of the following is absent in cirrhosis-

a)      Hyperplasia

b)      Degeneration

c)      Fibrosis

d)     Hypertrophy

77.  Glycosuria in sheep is sequlae of-

a)      Enterotoxaemia

b)      Braxy

c)      Anthrax

d)      Fluke infestation

78.  Chronic venous congestion is characterized by-

a)      Biliary cirrhosis

b)     Cardiac cirrhosis

c)      Portal cirrhosis

d)      Multinodular cirrhosis

79.  Appearance of fresh blood in stools is called as-

a)      Melana

b)      Hematuria

c)      Hemophilia

d)     Haematochizia

80.  Choleliths are more common seen in-

a)      Cattle

b)      Horse

c)      Pig

d)      Fowl

 

81.  Degenerative renal lesions are known as-

a)      Nephritis

b)      Nephrocalcinosis

c)      Nephrosis

d)      None of the above

82.  Inflammation of all parts of kidney involving the pelvis and parenchyma is known as-

a)      Embolic nephritis

b)     Pyelonephritis

c)      Interstitial nephritis

d)      Glomerulonephritis

83.  White spotted kidney is main lesion seen in-

a)      Focal interstitial nephritis

b)      Diffuse interstitial nephritis

c)      Glomerulonephritis

d)      None of the above

84.  Large white kidney is seen in-

a)      Acute glomerulonephritis

b)     Subacute glomerulonephritis

c)      Chronic glomerulonephritis

d)      Interstitial nephritis

85.  High specific gravity of urine will be observed in-

a)      Acute glomerulonephritis

b)      Subacute glomerulonephritis

c)      Chronic glomerulonephritis

d)      Interstitial nephritis

86.  Which type of crystals are seen in acidic urine-

a)      Carbonate

b)      Phosphate

c)      Oxalate

d)      All of the above

87.  Presence of calculi in ducts of Bellini in kidney is called as-

a)      Piloconcretions

b)     Microconcretions

c)      Urinary calculi

d)      Nephrolithiasis

 

88.  Presence of calculi in pelvis of  kidney is called as-

a)      Piloconcretions

b)      Microconcretions

c)      Urinary calculi

d)     Nephrolithiasis

89.  Presence of cast in urine is called as-

a)      Cylindruria

b)      Calculi

c)      Cylindroids

d)      Any of the above

90.  Gliosis refers to-

a)      Increase in astrocytes

b)      Increase in microglial cells

c)      Increase in oligodendrocytes

d)      All of the above

 

91.  Microglia after engulfing become foamy containing lipids, are called as-

a)      Gitter cells

b)      Gemiocytes

c)      Leptocytes

d)      Plasma cells

92.  Exencephalus means-

a)      Protrusion of meninges

b)     Absence of cranial vault exposing the brain

c)      An abnormal small brain

d)      Absence of most of the brain

93.  Rachicele is hernia of-

a)      Spinal cord

b)      Brain

c)      Abomasum

d)      Intestine

94.  Abnormal accumulation of CSF in and around the brain is called as-

a)      Hydronephrosis

b)     Hydrocephalus

c)      Hydropericardium

d)      Cerebellar hypoplasia

95.  Calcification is more commonly seen in-

a)      Meninges

b)      Brain

c)      Spinal cord

d)      All of the above

96.  Inflammation of duramater is called as-

a)      Encephalomyelitis

b)     Pachymeningitis

c)      Leptomeningitis

d)      Meningoencephalomyelitis

97.  In rabies negri bodies are seen in-

a)      Hippocampus and cerebrum

b)     Hippocampus and cerebellum

c)      Medulla and hippocampus

d)      Cerebrum and medulla

98.  Which of the following statement is incorrect-

a)      Neuritis refers to inflammation of peripheral nerves

b)     Wallerian degeneration occurs in muscle fibers

c)      Wallerian degeneration occurs in nerve fibers

d)      Inflammation of uterus is termed as metriti

99.  Presence of blood in tunica vaginalis is called as-

a)      Hematocele

b)      Hydrocele

c)      Rachicele

d)      Pachicele

100.    Brucellosis in rams causes-

a)      Orchitis

b)     Epididymitis

c)      Keratitis

d)      None of the above